When was Christ glorified? The New Testament
is very clear concerning when Christ was glorified.
It was not before, but after his ascension.
The facts of the case also demonstrate that it is
not Christ’s body that was the subject of glorification.
The glory of Christ is received at his coronation, after
he returns to heaven, not before. In John 7:39, Christ’s
glory results in the outpouringof the Holy Spirit. “
But this he spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those
believing in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was
not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.”
Now, from this text, we know that Jesus would send the Holy Spirit once he was glorified. Does that mean he was glorified when he rose from the dead? No, not at all.
On the road to Emmaus, the Lord said, “Ought not the Christ to have suffered these things and to enter into His glory? (Luke 24:26). Thus, after Jesus is raised from the dead, in his post resurrection body, he has not yet entered into his glory.
If it is argued that this his body is a glorious body because it has been raised from the dead. We are reminded of John 1:14, of which the apostles testify, “we beheld his glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.”
This text speaks of his earthly ministry. Thought it is doubtful that it has any reference to his physical outward appearance. His political and social rank was inglorious, despised and the cause of rejection.
For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though He was rich, yet for your sakes He became poor, that you through His poverty might become rich. (2 Cor. 8:3)
So, there is no more or less glory after than before. However, this is not the glory associated specifically with the eschatological end time as we demonstrate.
It is clear that Christ gave up his glory with the Father to experience the humiliation of being made lowly in the likeness of men.
In the garden of Gethsemane, he prayed, “Father, Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You…And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” (John 17:1, 5).
Paul, writing to Timothy says, And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up in glory, (1 Tim. 3:16). Here again, we see that the scripture notes that Christ received glory at his ascension into heaven. See also Luke 24:51).
Peter affirms that the glory of Christ followed his suffering. “Searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of Christ who was in them was indicating when he testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow.” (1 Pet. 1:9).
He then states that God gave Christ glory after he was raised from the dead. ”Who through Him believe in God who raised Him from the dead and gave Him glory, so that your faith and hope are in God.” (1 Pet. 1:21).
Once again, we see that Christ is crowned with glory and honor. “But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for every one.” (Heb. 2:9).
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By defination, what does "glorified mean" ?
ThNKS
According to Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon (Dictionary), it means to be hold in good or in great esteem, of high repute, but can also refer to wondrous deeds, splendid in appearance and to be free from sin. I would recommend that you read all the passages in the Old and New Testaments where the word is found and seek to understand how many applications are made of it. That will probably give you a better idea of the breadth and scope of the term by seeing how it is used in various contexts.
"The facts of the case also demonstrate that it is__not Christ’s body that was the subject of glorification."____Please read John 17:20 , Phil.3:30. and Psalm 8:1
Not Phil.3:30 but 3.21
3:21 Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.
John 17:5, Jesus asked the Father to glorify him with the Father's glory which he had with the Father before the world was. That was not the glory of a human form, for we have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen his form (Jn. 5:37). Christ was in the form of God before he was incarnated (Phil. 2:6-8), therefore Christ was in a form that neither man had heard or seen. According to 1 Tim. 16:16, he now dwells in unabpproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see. That is not the glory that he gave to the apostles, per Jn. 17:22. In addition, the glory of Phil. 3:21 was yet future, so how could it be the glory of Jn 17:22? Jesus seems to explain that glory as being one with God, i.e. a restored relationship with the Father as one, versus being at enmity between God through sin. That is certainly a glorious status, i.e. to be one with God, in his fellowship and love. The text in Philippians, in light of the above is not about biological transformation, but is about covenantal transformation into the glory of the "image" of God as man is taken out of his Adamic nature of helplessness and takes on the power of Christ's immortal, incoruptible spiritual glorious body, the church. The text literally reads, the body of the humiliation of us. Their humilitation consisted in the fact that they had been stripped of their identity as sons of God by severing their relationship with Judaism and the temple cultus and worship. To the Jews, they were a people without a land, country, temple, priesthood, sacrifices, etc. In short, they were humiliated as they appear in the world. This is why Paul wrote of them in Coll. 3:3-4, that had "died" and their life was "hidden" with Christ in God. Therefore, when Christ their life appeared, they would appear with him in glory. Once the temple was destroyed and Old Covenant Israel destroyed and carried into captivity, God revealed who the true sons of God were (Rev. 2:9; 3:9) and they entered the glory of God and the kingdom, no more to be humiliated by the presence and power of Judaism as it is to this day. Judaism has no temple, no priesthood, no land, no genealogy. Zionism is not Judaism. Those who practive Judaism will be the first to tell you they have been living in exile since AD 70 and are not to forcibly reenter the land unless God takes them there. Well, it will never happen based on Matt. 24:1-35. The problems people encounter with understanding the glory of God is in trying to make it refer to human bodily substance when in actuality it refers to our stance, i.e. relationship with God. That it what was lost in Genesis 3, and that is what is restored in Christ. Man never lost his body, it was dust before Adam sinned, dust after he sinned and it is dust now and so will it ever be as long as we are in this life as far as "substance" is concerned.
"The facts of the case also demonstrate that it is
not Christ’s body that was the subject of glorification."
Please read John 17:20,, Psalm 8:1 and Phil.3:21
Please read my response below.
Please read my response below.
What is your take on Peter J. Leithart's article, "When the Son is Glorified?" (I tried to post the link but got deleted.) Blessings.
I found the article interesting to read, but I'm not convinced that he's made a convincing argument. I read in John 16:7-8. Nevertheless I tell you the truth. It is to your advantage that I go away for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you; but if I depart, I will send Him to you. And when he has come, He will convict the world of sin, and of righteousness and of judgment." Luke records that they were told to wait for the Promise of the Father. "Behold, I send the Promise of My Father upon you; but tarry in the city of Jerusalem until you are endued with power from on high." (Lk. 24:49) On Pentecost, Peter identifies the coming of the Spirit with the fulfillment of the prophecy of Joel, saying "This is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:" (Acts 2:16-20). He concludes by saying of Christ, "Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear." (Acts 2:33). From all these passages, it appears to me that the Holy Spirit would be sent down from heaven. Peter says the same in 1 Peter 1:12. "To them it was revealed that, not to themselves, but to us they were ministering the things which now have been reported to you through those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven–things which angels desire to look into. The other problem I see with the Leithart's line of reasoning are the texts such as 1 Peter 1:20: "Who through Him believe in God, who raised Him from the dead and gave him glory, so that your faith and hope are in God. The glory is subsequent to the cross and follows the resurrection. "Then He said to them, "O foolish ones, and slow of heart to believe in all that he prophets have spoken! Ought not the Christ to have suffered these things and to enter into His glory." (Luke 24:25-26). Leithart supplied Philippians 2:8-9, but notice again the latter verse, "Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name…" (v. 8). Comparing this with Ephesians 1:20-21, the exaltation and name is again linked to Christ's ascension and seat at the right hand of the Father. Hebrews 12:2, says the cross was the shame. "Looking unto Jesus, the author and finisher of our faith, who for the joy that was set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand o the throne of God." When Paul speaks of the "glory" of the cross, he refers specifically to the "preaching of the cross" as the means of salvation, (1 Cor. 1:18). In that I understand the cross as one of the "base" things which God chose to confound the wise. Note this quote from Leithart: "All these transfers of Jesus culminate in Jesus’ own transfer of His Spirit to the church. Having been glorified in His death on the cross, Jesus hands over His Spirit." emp. added. I'm not sure if he means that when Jesus died he delivered his Spirit to the church. If so, I find that objectionable. According to Luke, Jesus said, "Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit" (Luke 23:46). Would Christ be giving the Holy Spirit to the Father? That is just the opposite order per John 16:14-15, which says the Father gave the Spirit to Christ. I think the text in John 7:39 and 21:22, are proleptic statements that look forward to the ascension. Whatever they mean, they should not in my judgment be interpreted to mean that the cross was the glory of Christ upon Jesus' descent into Hades. "But to each one of us grace was given according to the measure of the Christ's gift. Therefore He says: "When He ascended on high, He led captivity captive, and gave gifts to men." (Eph. 4:7-8)
Interesting!
If the glorification is only after He ascended, what is your take on john 20:22?
If its not the Holy Spirit they recieved,then what was Jesus referring to?
D.A. Carson has excellent comments on the verse and expresses what I believe. If Pentecost is the outpouring of the Spirit, and that cannot be denied, then the verses in question are somewhat symbolic in anticipating that event and are not an actual expression of the sending of the Holy Spirit, especially since the Lord told the disciples to wait in Jerusalem until they are clothed with power from on high, Lk. 24:47-49; Acts 1:6-8. Carson’s comments that the behavior of the disciples remains unchanged, unlike their boldness after receiving the Spirit is also a great point. He also takes note that Thomas would have been omitted in this case. See D. A. Carson, The Pillar New Testament Commentary, The Gospel According to John, pp. 647-656.
Christ Glorified words I utter to my association with the
Lord. Realizing Christ Glorified IMMEDIATELY addresses the Lord,
acknowledging one’s eternal relationship with the Almighty. Please
utter these words my friends and know the miracle which is Christ.
Christ Glorified