But of That Day and Hour Who Knows? This is a common response by those who yet believe Jesus’ second coming is future. This is a brief response to demonstrate why that reasoning does not follow. The view addressed here comes from a study citing Luke 21:34-35, as a day of uncertainty. The writer maintained that since those verses followed Luke 21:32, which clearly delineated the A.D. 70 fall or Jerusalem, then they must of necessity be speaking of a yet future unknown coming of the Lord. The following is a partial reply.
Not Knowing the Day and Hour
Luke does not mention the phrase, “but of that day and hour no man knows” as does Matthew and Mark. That does not mean that the idea is not present in the text. Clarke correctly deduces the idea from the language of surprise suggested by the “unexpectedness” indicated in the text. Normal life continued without interruption allowing for its surprise.
The idea of not knowing the day is prophetic and relates directly to the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70. This is confirmed by two passages from the Old Covenant. The first, is the Song of Moses, (Deuteronomy 32) where Moses speaks of Judah’s last days, when God takes vengeance on the perverse and crooked generation, (Deut. 32:5, 20).
In fact, Jesus draws from that very context to pronounce his judgment upon the Jews. Four times in Deuteronomy 32, he mentions that God would take vengeance on the terminal generation of Israel, (Deut. 32:35, 41, 43). Compare Luke 21:22. Twice in Moses’ prophecy, God says that Judah would not know the time of the event. “For they are a nation void of counsel, nor is there any understanding in them. Oh, that they were wise, that they understood this, that they would consider their latter end!” (v. 28-29).
Jesus quotes directly from this verse and laments because Judah did not know the time of her visitation i.e. judgment. “Now as He drew near, he saw the city and wept over it, saying, ‘If you had known, even you, especially in this your day, the things that make for your peace! But now they are hidden from your eyes,” (Luke 19:41-44).
Not only did Judah not know the day and hour, they did not know the “generation” because of their unbelief!
The reason Judah did not know the “day and hour” of her visitation is because God said the event was “laid up in store with Me, sealed up among My treasures?” (Deut. 32:34). In other words, God had not revealed the “day and hour” of the event. It was His secret, stored up like precious treasure in His own mind.
Zechariah 14:7 – But of That Day and Hour Who Knows?
The prophet Zechariah writes concerning the day of the Lord. His context is the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70. He cannot possibly be speaking of a day that ends all life on the planet. In verses 16-20, he says that all the nations which came up against Jerusalem shall go up to worship the King, the Lord of hosts and keep the Feast of Tabernacles. He specifically names Egypt and then categorically includes all the nations.
These events could not be possible given a scenario where the earth is burned and destroyed. Yet, in verse 7, he says that when the Lord comes with all his saints, the following occurs:
“It shall come to pass in that day that there will be no light; the lights will diminish. It shall be one day which is known to the Lord–Neither day nor night. But at evening time it shall happen that it will be light.” (Zech. 14:6-7. )
It is this text which Jesus quotes while giving the prophecy on the Mount of Olives in Matthew 24:36 and Mark 13:32, while speaking of the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70. He likewise draws from Deuteronomy 32. Moses spoke of the destruction of Judah and Jerusalem in her last days as a time which only the Lord knew. Yet God said that event concerned Israel in their latter (last days), Deut. 31:29-32:43.
Therefore, the day which only God knew referred to a time when he would bring destruction upon the Jewish nation in A.D. 70.
Things Equal to the Same Thing Are Equal To Each Other
We have established that Deuteronomy 32:28-29 and v. 34, referred to a day only known by God i.e. sealed up in his treasures). But the day of Lord in Zechariah 14:7, was a day only known to the Lord, hence likewise sealed up in his treasures. Therefore, the day of the Lord in Zechariah 14:7, equals the time of judgment in Deuteronomy 32:34.
Now since the unknown day of the Lord in Zechariah 14:7 equals the unknown day of the Lord in Matthew 24:36, and Mark. 13:32, and since they equal the second coming of Christ, then Deuteronomy 32:28-29 and 35, equals the second coming of Christ. But the events of Deuteronomy 32 speak of the last days of Judah and their end in 70 A.D. That is proof positive that the destruction of Jerusalem equates in time with Jesus’ second coming. Things equal to the same thing are equal to each other.
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I feel you should reinforce your view by showing that Luke's account continues the fulfillment of the Jewish
"days of wrath until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled" and therefore began to be fulfilled in AD 70.
Matthew's account limits the "signs" of Christ's second coming to the "1290 endtime days" of Daniel 12:11.
Matthew and Mark pass over the nearly 2000 years of Luke's "days of wrath upon Israel" to the Endtime
when a third temple must be built to allow worship therein as predicted by Rev.11:1…followed by 1260 of
the 1290 days of Rev.11:3 and 12:6 tol be "cut short" by 27 days for Believers and 26 days for Jews. Mel Miller
Mel, you have a logical fallacy in attempting to extend the "days of wrath" and the times of the Gentiles beyond 70 AD. Take a look at the text again. It says (1) Jerusalem will be trodden down of the Gentiles until the time os the Gentiles are fulfilled. Now ask, how long did it take to destroy Jerusalem? Was it 2000 years? Obviously not. According to all reputable historical sources and commentaries only about three years and six months. Now if Jerusalem is trodden down until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled, and if the Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 AD, then the times of the Gentiles ends in 70 AD.
Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 AD.
Jerusalem is destroyed (trodden down) until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.
Therefore, the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled in 70 AD.
Now, to check the accuracy of our logic, the text adds the following"
When you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies know that its desolation has drawn near…For these are the days of vengeance that all things which are written may be fulfilled, Lk. 21:20-22.
Now again, let's test it.
Jerusalem was surrounded by the Roman armies and destroyed from 66-70 AD, Lk. 21:20-22
When Jerusalem was surround and destroyed all things written would be fulfilled, Lk. 21:22
Therefore, all things written were fulfilled in the period of 66-70 AD.
Since all things written were fulfilled in 70 A.D, Lk. 21:22.
And since the times of the Gentiles were one of the events (prophecies) yet to be fulfilled when Jesus spoke.
Then the times of the Gentiles were fulfilled in 70 AD.
Finally, the last evidence is that all those things would come to pass before that generation passed away, Lk. 21:32
The fulfilling of the times of the Gentiles, the days of wrath, the treading down of Jerusalem and all things written were part of all these things.
Therefore, the times of the Gentiles, the days of wrath, the treading down of Jerusalem by the Gentiles and all things written were fulfilled in 70 AD.
That should pretty much reinforce everything I've written, directly from Luke's account.
The night before He was crucified, Jesus promised the church he would someday come back for us (John 14:1-4). At the coming of the Son of Man (resurrection), like in the days of Noah, the righteous will be delivered before the wrath is poured out on the wicked. (Mat. 24:37-39, 1 Thes. 1:10) Peter calls this day of deliverance then wrath, the day of the Lord. (2 Pet. 3:10-13) The promise of His coming is the catching up (rapture) of the saints (1 Thes. 4:17) out of the Great Tribulation (Rev. 7:9-14) before Gods wrath is poured out on a Christ rejecting world (1 Thes. 1:10). The scoffers are those denying the rapture of the church from the wrath to come. (2 Pet. 3:3-4)
Your views lack the comprehensive treatment of scripture they deserve. You have pulled all of these passages out of context and projected them into the future without justification. This is a common mistake for those who believe Christ is yet to come. The conversation Jesus had the night before He was crucified did not end in 14:4. It continued through chapter 17. And when you read John 16:16-19, Christ is yet discussing his going away and coming again mentioned in ch. 14. However, he adds the time statements, "a little while." This takes us back to the prophecy in Haggai 2:6 which is also quoted in Heb. 10:37."For yet a little whie, and He who is coming will come and will not tarry (delay). Heb. 10:37. The Lord's coming was imminent, as the end of the age had come upon them, 1 Cor. 10:11, Phil. 4:5; James 5:8-9, 1 Pet. 4:7, 17; 1 John 2:18-19; Rev. 1:1, 3, 22:6, 10. Ignoring these scriptures renders your view a one legged horse, not very believable.
In addition, you quote from Matthew 24. You again ignore that Jesus promised the generation then living would not pass until all things things came to pass. See Matt. 24:34 Are you by any stretch of the imagination claiming that Peter, James, John, or Andrew are yet walking the earth today? Are any of the first century generation yet living on earth? That's a terribly flawed omission in your futurist view.
Next, you quote 1 Thess. 4:17. Well, take a look at versus 15 and 17, only this time read slowly enough to take note of "we who are alive" and remain until the coming of the Lord." Paul quotes from the Lord in Matt. 24:34, saying "for this we say to you by the word of the Lord." So, he affirmed the resurrection of 1 Thess 4, as Christ did in Matt. 24:31, that it would occur before that generation passed, –in the lifetime of those then living. Were you living at that time? Was anybody on earth today living then, so that Paul could say of you, "we who are alive and are remaining [alive]. I don't think so.
Finally, the last oversight is from 2 Peter 3:4. The scoffers mocked because Christ had not yet come when Peter wrote in about 64-67 AD. Now ask, why would scoffers, living in the days of the Holy Spirit inspired apostles mock that Jesus had not come in their lifetime? It's because they knew that the apostles had taught Jesus would come in that generation. If they had taught he wasn't coming until the 21st century, they would have no grounds for mocking. But the fact of the matter is, Peter used the same words of Christ to teach that the end was coming "in a little while" (1 Pet. 1:6). Then he said God was ready to judge the living and the dead and that the "end of all things" had drawn near. 1 Pet. 4:5-7. He then stated that the time of the judgment had come, and (the definite article "the" ) is in the Greek text, thus it is "the judgment" not "a" judgment.
Now, when you read the first few verses of 2 Peter 3, he tells his readers that he is reminding them of what he already told them in the first epistle about the parousia (coming) of the Lord. What was that? That Christ would soon come. If you deny that, then you become a scoffer and say the same thing they did. They denied Jesus was coming soon, in their generation. So, always get the complete context. Otherwise, you'll wind up looking for a space ship from heaven to take you off the earth. That simply is not going to happen, but if it does, you'll be going to Mars and not to heaven.