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The Fullness of the Gentiles

How is the best way to help one understand
what was and when was the fulfillment of
“until the fullness of the Gentiles has
come in” as in Rom.11:25-27?

We begin to understand what was and
when was the fulfillment of “until the
fullness of the Gentiles has come in
, by
starting with the Old Testament.

Eschatology in the N.T. is simply the
reiteration of eschatologial prophecies found
in the O.T. So, our first hermeneutical
principle will be the O.T. scriptures.

Starting here allows us to set the parameters
for fulfillment very clearly. Secondly, it
prevents us from getting lost in a question
about semantics and specific details should
they not be forth coming in the study.

Old Testament Text

Keywords in the discussion are the “mystery”
and “as it is written.” The mystery focuses
primarily on the subject of the coming in
of the Gentiles.

As it is written, gives us the Old Testament
framework that helps us to clearly define the
time of the fulfillment.

The Mystery

The mystery is defined in Ephesians as the
uniting of Jew and Gentile in one body by
the cross.(Ephesians 3:2-6, 9-12).

According to Revelation 10:7, the mystery of
God is finished at the sounding of last
trumpet, i.e. the seventh angel.

“But in the days of the sounding of the seventh
angel, when he is about to sound, the mystery
of God would be finshed, as He declared to
His servants the prophets.”

The mystery of God is finished at the sounding
of the seventh trumpet. The completion of the
mystery is the “coming in of the fullness of
the Gentiles.

The seventh angels sounds when the city falls,
(Revelation 11:13-15). “In the same hour there
was a great earthquake, and a tenth of the city

This corresponds with chapter 16:7, in the vision
of the seven bowls or vials. “Then the seventh
angel poured his bowl into the air, and a loud
voice came out of heaven, from the throne, saying.
“It is done!”

Following this we observe, “Now the great city
was divided into three parts, and the cities of
the nations fell. And great Babylon was remembered
before God, to give here the cup of the wine of
the fierceness of His wrath.” (Revelation 16:19)

The Great City of Revelation

The great city of Revelation is Jerusalem, (11:8),
the city which spiritually is called Sodom and
Egypt, where also the Lord was crucified. It
is the “Mystery Babylon of Revelation 17:5, 18,
which is burned and made desolate by the beast
with ten horns who hate her and burn her flesh
with fire, (17:16-17).

This would be carried out to its consummation
or until the words of God are fulfilled. Thus,
the destruction of Mystery Babylon, or the
city of Jerusalem equates in time with the
sounding of the 7th trumpet and pouring out
of the wrath of the seventh vial.

By incorporating this event into the discussion,
we have also added the time statements of
Revelation (1:1-3 and 22:6-10), that the
fall of “Mystery Babylon” hence the completion
of the mystery (uniting of Jew and Gentile in
one body, was imminent, i.e. very near.

As It Is Written

And so all Israel shall be saved as it is
written: The Deliverer will come out of Zion,
and He will turn away ungodliness from Jacob;
For this is My covenant with them, When I
take away their sins.” (Romans 11:26)

The quote is from Isaiah 59:20. God indicted
Israel for the crime of shedding innocent
blood, (59:7). To save Israrel, the Redeemer
will come to Zion, and to those tho turn
from transgression in Jacob,” Says the Lord.

Now that we have established the orign of the
text, meaning its Old Covenant roots, it is
appropriate to emphasize the time of fulfillment.

According to Christ, not one jot or tittle of
the Old Covenant could be removed until all
were fulfilled. (Matthew 5:17-18).

Thus, the time of fulfillment of the Old Covenant
becomes the chronological timeline for the
fulfillment of the the coming of Christ out
of Zion. See Luke 21;20-22, 32. This occurred
in A.D. 70.

This means that when Jesus comes for salvation
he would (a) take away the sins of Israel,
(Hebrews 9:28), and (b) this would complete the
mystery. The coming was in a very little while
and would occur without delay, (Hebrews 10:37)

Therefore the mystery of God is completed at
the coming of Christ, which equals the coming
in of the fulness of the Gentiles in A.D. 70.

In Ephesians, Paul calls the uniting of Jews
and Gentile in one body the “unity of the
faith.” What is important here is that the
consummation of the miraculous of coming of
the perfect likewise enters the equation.

This again leads us to A.D. 70 as the miracles
would only continue until Christ’s return,
1 Corinthians 1:7-8).

Key Points

1. The blinding of Israel until the fulness of
the Gentiles come in.

2. The completion of the mystery at the sounding
of the seventh trumpet.

3. The fall of the “great city” (Mystery Babylon,
which is Jerusalem) of Revelation at sounding of
the seventh trumpet.

4. The unity of the faith or consummation of
miracles until the coming of Christ in A.D. 70.

5. The coming of Christ out of Zion to redeem

6. The imminent time statements showing that
these things were at hand and had drawn near
during the times of the New Testament.

7. The Old Covenant background of the text
demonstrating that it could not be removed
until all were fulfilled, (Matthew 5:17-18;
Luke 21:20-22).


The fulness of the Gentiles occurred when
Christ returned from Zion to redeem Israel
in A.D. 70. This corresponds with the coming of
the perfect and consummation of miracles.

It also is the fulfillment of the Old Covenant
which Jesus shows is the same time as the
fall of Jerusalem in A.D. 70, (Luke 21:20-22).

Revelation shows the mystery is finished at
the sounding of the seventh trumpet, the
time of the fall of the great city Mystery

These events were at hand, coming shortly
and occurred within the first century generation.

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Leave A Reply (7 comments so far)


  1. Javier
    6 years ago

    Does the term 'the fullness of the gentiles' have to do with 'the times of the gentiles'? Or are they two separate terms with different meanings?
    Thank you.

    • ATF
      6 years ago

      See the above comment.

  2. Javier V
    6 years ago

    T term he 'fullness of the gentiles', does it also refer to the 'times of the gentiles' also or are these two different terminologies?

    • ATF
      6 years ago

      I believe the events are the same in time, but not in concept. The "times of the Gentiles" refer to the rule and reign of the Gentiles over the people of God, beginning from Judah's captivity under Nebuchadnezzar which did not end until their destruction in A.D. 70, which is the point of Luke 21:24, 32. The fullness of the Gentiles refers to those among the Gentiles who come into the kingdom/body of Christ to complete the salvation of all "spiritual Israel, i.e. Christians. The time of that completion is likewise A.D. 70, but they are two different groups and concepts.

  3. Vincent
    4 years ago

    Interesting read. Have you considered that the fullness of the Gentiles simply refers to the salvation of the Gentiles? Look up the use of the word pl?r?ma, Strong's 4138. I believe that Romans 11:25 is simply saying that some day Israel will experience the fullness of Christ the same way that the Gentiles are now experiencing the fullness of Christ.

    Romans 11:25. Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in, 26 and in this way[e] all Israel will be saved

    I believe most Bibles slightly incorrectly translate the original Greek. It makes more sense when it reads:

    Romans 11:25. Israel has experienced a hardening in part until they come into the fullness of the Gentiles, and in this way all Israel will be saved.

    Jesus completes us and that is our salvation. The entire chapter of Romans 11 talks about the fact that the Gentiles have been grafted into the Olive tree but warns that even unbelieving Israel can and will be grafted back int at some point, just like the Gentiles have been. So when Paul says "in this way" Israel will be saved, I believe he is drawing a parallel between Israel's salvation and the Gentiles salvation. Saying both groups will be saved the same way, through fullness in Christ.

    Look at all these verses that use the same word to establish this concept.

    Romans 13:10
    1 Corinthians 10:26
    Ephesians 1:22-23
    Ephesians 3:19
    Colossians 1:19
    Colossians 2:9

    What do you think?

    • ATF
      4 years ago

      I do believe that the "fullness of the Gentiles" refers to their salvation. I also believe that Israel would be (was) saved in the same manner as the Gentiles which is the point of both Romans 11:25-26 and Acts 15:11; "But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved in the same manner as they." The meaning of which is as the Gentiles were saved by grace apart from or without the law of Moses (the yoke of bondage) so would the Jews. However, we must not place either the salvation of the Gentiles or the salvation of Israel in the future. These events have occurred. The fullness of the Gentiles is the completion of the mystery of God, (Rev. 10:7) which was declared to the prophets. That means it is according to the prophetic teaches of the O.T. which were fulfilled in 70AD (Luke 21:20-24, 32), all withing the first century generation. That places the "fullness of the Gentiles" (their salvation) at the same time as the "trodden down of Jerusalem" until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled. Since Israel's salvation would come at the same time, it too was completed in 70AD. That's when the Deliverer came out of Zion and delivered ungodliness from Jacob (Israel).

  4. Alan Mangum
    2 years ago

    It is difficult to answer and hold to your position. So I understand why you delete it.

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