July 19th, 2011 |
Eschatology |
No Comment When Did the Law of Moses End?
This is the 4th study on the law of Moses and Colossian 2:14, where we continue with the relationship of baptism, resurrection and the end of the Law. See the previous study on Colossians 2 where we discussed baptism and resurrection. The implications of that study have an important significance for the end of the Law of Moses. It is suggested by many, particularly in the church of Christ that the Moses' law ended when Jesus died on the cross.
Often they cite Colossians 2:14 as an example of the law being nailed to the cross ...
July 15th, 2011 |
Eschatology |
No Comment Baptism and Resurrection
In our previous study, we focused on baptism and resurrection in Romans, pointing out the eschatological future of resurrection. Common church of Christ beliefs are that baptism was both a burial and resurrection. In many of their presentations, they cite the mode of baptism as the dying and rising with Christ using texts such as Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2 as proof.
However, as we've shown in the former study on baptism and eschatology, baptism and resurrection are not synonymous in Romans 6. Nor is it synonymous in Colossians 2. The distinction between baptism and resurrection is once again ...
July 20th, 2009 |
Eschatology |
No Comment In the last post, we discussed the inheritance for Israel, showing that because of immaturity, they were the same as bondslaves. Their immaturity was not based upon age, but upon their legal status under the Law. An heir cannot inherit until reaching legal age. This we covered in Galatians 4:1-2. When and how did Israel's inheritance come?
Legal Status as Children
According to Paul, Israel's legal status was that of a child, a minor too young to receive their inheritance. Thus, they were under "stewards" until the time appointed of the Father. This is described as being under the "elements of the ...
March 23rd, 2009 |
Eschatology |
4 Comments
We are responding to Dr. Edward Hinson’s
attack on Preterism. Among questions
entertained already, he submits yet another
one which he believes refutes Preterism.
Paul asks in “Romans 11, Has God Cast Away His People, Israel?” Dr. Hinson teaches Preterism implies such. We deny the charge.
He asks, “If God is finished with ethnic Israel, why did Paul ask: “Has God cast away his people?” “And why did he respond so emphatically, “ God forbid!” (Rom. 11:1)
First we must note that this text is written prior to A.D. 70. At that time God had not cast off the Old Covenant nation. However, today, since that ...
November 24th, 2008 |
Circumcision |
No Comment An Everlasting Covenant?
Is fleshly circumcision an everlasting covenant? Does God require circumcision today as he required Abraham’s descendants? Are children of God today bound under the terms of Genesis 17:13? Did not God make it a part of the gospel promise made to Abraham? The problem is a misunderstanding of the word “everlasting” as used in certain passages. Note: We are not discussing the medical merits of circumcision. For such matters consult your physician or urologist. We are concerned only with the theological and religious import.
How do we understand the word everlasting covenant from forever as olam is sometimes translated? See Strong’s ...
